Am I missing something...

sTony · Post by **sTony** » Sun Jun 05, 2005 3:00 pm

Okay I don't know whether to feel ripped off or not but for some reason I do. Here's the deal. I sold my boat in March 2005. Today I received a letter from Contra Costa County telling me that I have to pay taxes on the boat for the fiscal year 2005-2006, which is July 1, 2005 - June 30, 2006. They highlighted an area on the bill stating that I had ownership on lien date January 1, 2005. My question is if the taxes are clearly for a period that I no longer have onwership, why in the heck would I be obligated to pay this tax bill?

sTony

Scott V. · Post by **Scott V.** » Sun Jun 05, 2005 3:25 pm

Same thing happened to me. Ownership date is not the same as the tax period. Seems like a rip off but think of it this way....if you bought it used, someone else paid the taxes the first year you owned it, not you.

Scott V.

Ken C. · Post by **Ken C.** » Sun Jun 05, 2005 7:58 pm

Call the Tax Assesor's office and file an appeal. It may work. BTW - Didja get the new boat yet?

Steve · Post by **Steve** » Mon Jun 06, 2005 7:22 pm

When I moved from Humboldt Co. to Sacramento Co., I got a tax bill from Humboldt Co. saying I owed them a tax on my boat for a period of time AFTER I moved from Humboldt Co. I called them and they couldnt, in laymens terms, explain why I should pay a tax on a boat for a time period that the boat was not present in that county. I asked soooooo many questions, but still they couldnt explain it in a way that made sense. I flat out told them I wasnt paying the tax.

Well, after a month of thinking about it, thinking about the potential repercussions, I decided to let go of what was right and what was wrong, and I just paid the dern thing. It didnt make sense to me then, and it still doesnt, but sometimes you just cant win. And I lost. Oh well, at least I still have my boat.

Sometimes I feel like a salmon, always swimming against the current.